WBCS MAIN (2023)
INDIAN POLITY – PAPER V
100 Questions with Answers & Explanations
Compiled directly from the uploaded presentation.
Chapter-wise Question Distribution
• Centre-State Relations: 6
• Union Executive (President & PM): 12
• Schedules of the Constitution: 6
• Making of the Constitution: 8
• UPSC & Public Services: 5
• Miscellaneous: 3
• Fundamental Rights: 5
• Panchayati Raj & Local Self-Govt: 6
• Preamble: 2
• Judiciary: 10
• Constitutional Amendments: 10
• Constitutional & Statutory Bodies: 7
• States & Union Territories: 8
• Election Commission & Political Parties: 2
• Parliament: 4
• Fundamental Duties: 2
• Citizenship: 2
• Basic Structure Doctrine: 2
Total Questions: 100
Q1. Which of the Articles deals with the grants-in-aid by the Union Government to the States?
Topic: Centre-State Relations
(A) Article 270
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 275
(D) Article 265
Correct Answer: (C) Article 275
Explanation: Article 275 empowers Parliament to provide grants-in-aid to States that need assistance, especially for tribal welfare.
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Q2. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters upon office?
Topic: Union Executive (President & PM)
(A) Chief Justice
(B) Speaker
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
Correct Answer: (A) Chief Justice
Explanation: Under Article 60, the oath is administered by the Chief Justice of India (or, in his absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court).
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Q3. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not provide administration for
Topic: Schedules of the Constitution
(A) Assam
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Tripura
(D) Manipur
Correct Answer: (D) Manipur
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule covers tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram — Manipur is not included.
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Q4. Who was elected as the Permanent President of the Constituent Assembly?
Topic: Making of the Constitution
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Frank Anthony
Correct Answer: (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Explanation: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly on 11 December 1946.
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Q5. 'Doctrine of Pleasure' was introduced in
Topic: UPSC & Public Services
(A) Article 317
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 310
(D) Article 318
Correct Answer: (C) Article 310
Explanation: Article 310 lays down that civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President/Governor.
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Q6. At which of its sessions did the Congress officially accept the 'Socialistic Pattern of Society'?
Topic: Making of the Constitution
(A) Bombay Session of 1953
(B) Avadi Session of 1955
(C) Calcutta Session of 1957
(D) Nagpur Session of 1959
Correct Answer: (B) Avadi Session of 1955
Explanation: The Indian National Congress adopted the resolution on a 'Socialistic Pattern of Society' at its Avadi Session in 1955.
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Q7. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India prescribes the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations?
Topic: Schedules of the Constitution
(A) 11th Schedule
(B) 4th Schedule
(C) 3rd Schedule
(D) 5th Schedule
Correct Answer: (C) 3rd Schedule
Explanation: The Third Schedule lays down the forms of oaths/affirmations for various offices.
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Q8. From which country was the idea of the Concurrent List borrowed in India?
Topic: Making of the Constitution
(A) Japan
(B) United States of America
(C) Australia
(D) China
Correct Answer: (C) Australia
Explanation: The Concurrent List, a feature of the Australian Constitution, was adopted by the framers of the Indian Constitution.
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Q9. Which of the following official documents is related with India?
Topic: Miscellaneous
(A) White Paper
(B) Green Paper
(C) Yellow Book
(D) Blue Book
Correct Answer: (A) White Paper
Explanation: A 'White Paper' is an authoritative government report on a policy issue, a format also used by the Government of India.
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Q10. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees protection in respect of conviction for offences?
Topic: Fundamental Rights
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 25
(D) Article 32
Correct Answer: (B) Article 20
Explanation: Article 20 protects persons from ex-post-facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination.
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Q11. What does the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deal with?
Topic: Schedules of the Constitution
(A) Administration of Tribal Areas
(B) Panchayat Raj
(C) Official Languages
(D) Municipalities
Correct Answer: (C) Official Languages
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists the officially recognised languages of India.
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Q12. The original Constitution of India had how many Articles and Schedules?
Topic: Making of the Constitution
(A) 392 Articles and 7 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
(C) 395 Articles and 6 Schedules
(D) 396 Articles and 4 Schedules
Correct Answer: (B) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
Explanation: The original Constitution (1950) had 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.
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Q13. Which committee recommended that there should also be reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions?
Topic: Panchayati Raj & Local Self-Govt
(A) Thungon Committee
(B) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(C) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(D) Gadgil Committee
Correct Answer: (B) L.M. Singhvi Committee
Explanation: The L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986) recommended constitutional recognition of Panchayats, including women's reservation.
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Q14. In which case did the Supreme Court specifically find that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?
Topic: Preamble
(A) Kesavananda Bharati Case
(B) The Berubari Union Case
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) The Berubari Union Case
Explanation: In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held the Preamble is not part of the Constitution — a view later reversed in Kesavananda Bharati (1973).
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Q15. In which year was the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee appointed to examine the working of the Community Development Programme?
Topic: Panchayati Raj & Local Self-Govt
(A) 1951
(B) 1954
(C) 1957
(D) 1960
Correct Answer: (C) 1957
Explanation: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957.
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Q16. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central Law and a State Law is found in
Topic: Centre-State Relations
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 300
(D) Entry 42, List III
Correct Answer: (B) Article 254
Explanation: Article 254 deals with inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and laws made by State Legislatures.
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Q17. How many Articles were written on the Constitution when it came into effect?
Topic: Making of the Constitution
(A) 410 Articles
(B) 415 Articles
(C) 365 Articles
(D) 395 Articles
Correct Answer: (D) 395 Articles
Explanation: The Constitution as adopted in 1950 contained 395 Articles.
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Q18. A member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after the enquiry has been held by
Topic: UPSC & Public Services
(A) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(B) Committee constituted by the Governor of the concerned State
(C) High Court of the concerned State
(D) Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: (D) Supreme Court of India
Explanation: Under Article 317, removal on grounds of misbehaviour requires an inquiry and report by the Supreme Court.
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Q19. Under the Panchayati Raj system, Gram Sabha consists of
Topic: Panchayati Raj & Local Self-Govt
(A) Elected executives of a village
(B) Persons who are registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village
(C) Elected executives of a village and officials nominated by him/her
(D) The village Sarpanch and the persons nominated by him/her
Correct Answer: (B) Persons who are registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village
Explanation: Under Article 243(b), Gram Sabha comprises all persons registered in the electoral rolls of the village.
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Q20. Which one of the following High Courts has the territorial jurisdiction over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
Topic: Judiciary
(A) Calcutta High Court
(B) Orissa High Court
(C) Andhra Pradesh High Court
(D) Madras High Court
Correct Answer: (A) Calcutta High Court
Explanation: The Calcutta High Court has jurisdiction over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
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Q21. Which Article is related to equality before law?
Topic: Fundamental Rights
(A) Article 94
(B) Article 24
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 19
Correct Answer: (C) Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
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Q22. Which Article lays down that the laws declared by the Supreme Court would be binding on all Courts in India?
Topic: Judiciary
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 142
(D) Article 143
Correct Answer: (B) Article 141
Explanation: Article 141 makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts within India.
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Q23. Who was the Prime Minister of India when a Constitutional status for Panchayati Raj and Urban Self-Governing Institutions was accorded?
Topic: Constitutional Amendments
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Rajeev Gandhi
(C) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Correct Answer: (C) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Explanation: The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments (1992) giving constitutional status to Panchayats and Municipalities were enacted under PM P. V. Narasimha Rao.
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Q24. Which is the oldest High Court established in India in 1862?
Topic: Judiciary
(A) The Bombay High Court
(B) The Calcutta High Court
(C) The Madras High Court
(D) The Allahabad High Court
Correct Answer: (B) The Calcutta High Court
Explanation: The Calcutta High Court, established in 1862 under the Indian High Courts Act 1861, is regarded as the oldest.
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Q25. Which Article of the Constitution of India envisages that there shall be an Attorney-General for India?
Topic: Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 76
(C) Article 67
(D) Article 113
Correct Answer: (B) Article 76
Explanation: Article 76 provides for the appointment of the Attorney-General of India.
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Q26. Choose the correct statement stated in the Constitution of India:
Topic: Centre-State Relations
(A) India, that is Bharat, shall be a federation of States.
(B) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
(C) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Quasi Federal State.
(D) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Unitary State.
Correct Answer: (B) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
Explanation: Article 1 declares 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States'.
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Q27. Which Right was not taken from the British Constitution in the Indian Constitution?
Topic: Fundamental Rights
(A) Freedom of Press
(B) Right to Vote
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Educational Rights
Correct Answer: (C) Fundamental Rights
Explanation: Fundamental Rights were inspired mainly by the U.S. Constitution's Bill of Rights, not the British Constitution.
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Q28. The Government of India revoked the special status or limited autonomy granted under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir — when?
Topic: Centre-State Relations
(A) August, 2019
(B) September, 2019
(C) October, 2019
(D) November, 2019
Correct Answer: (A) August, 2019
Explanation: The special status under Article 370 was revoked in August 2019.
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Q29. The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution talks about
Topic: Schedules of the Constitution
(A) Municipalities
(B) Forms of Oaths
(C) Validation of Regulations
(D) Anti Defection Act
Correct Answer: (D) Anti Defection Act
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule contains the anti-defection provisions.
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Q30. Which Article is for the Protection of interests of Minorities?
Topic: Fundamental Rights
(A) Article 59
(B) Article 39
(C) Article 49
(D) Article 29
Correct Answer: (D) Article 29
Explanation: Article 29 protects the interests of minorities regarding their language, script and culture.
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Q31. Article 78 of the Constitution deals with
Topic: Union Executive (President & PM)
(A) President's power to get information from the Council of Ministers.
(B) Prime Minister's duty regarding keeping the President informed about the Government's decisions and policies.
(C) Emergency powers of the President.
(D) President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.
Correct Answer: (B) Prime Minister's duty regarding keeping the President informed about the Government's decisions and policies.
Explanation: Article 78 casts a duty on the Prime Minister to communicate all decisions and information to the President.
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Q32. The administrative and operational control of the Armed Forces is exercised by the
Topic: Union Executive (President & PM)
(A) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs with Prime Minister as Chairman
(B) Ministry of Defence
(C) Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force Staff
(D) President
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Defence
Explanation: While the President is the supreme commander, day-to-day administrative and operational control rests with the Ministry of Defence.
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Q33. How many times can the President of India seek re-election to his post?
Topic: Union Executive (President & PM)
(A) Once
(B) 3 times
(C) 2 times
(D) Any number of times
Correct Answer: (D) Any number of times
Explanation: The Constitution places no limit on the number of times a person may be re-elected as President.
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Q34. The Panchayat System was introduced after this Amendment of the Constitution:
Topic: Constitutional Amendments
(A) 65th Amendment
(B) 68th Amendment
(C) 72nd Amendment
(D) 73rd Amendment
Correct Answer: (D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 introduced the present three-tier Panchayati Raj system.
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Q35. The President nominates 12 Members of Rajya Sabha according to
Topic: Union Executive (President & PM)
(A) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies
(B) The recommendations made by the Vice-President
(C) Their role played in political set up of the country
(D) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service
Correct Answer: (D) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service
Explanation: Article 80 allows the President to nominate persons with special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service.
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Q36. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board has been established under which Ministry?
Topic: Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(D) Ministry of External Affairs
Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Explanation: IPAB functioned under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (it has since been abolished, its functions transferred to High Courts).
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Q37. Sanskrit is the 2nd official language of which State in India?
Topic: Miscellaneous
(A) Karnataka
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: (C) Uttarakhand
Explanation: Uttarakhand adopted Sanskrit as its second official language.
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Q38. National Capital Territory of Delhi was constituted by
Topic: States & Union Territories
(A) Ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor
(B) Ordinance promulgated by the President
(C) 71st Amendment
(D) 69th Amendment
Correct Answer: (D) 69th Amendment
Explanation: The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991 gave Delhi the status of National Capital Territory.
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Q39. Which among the following languages was included in the Eighth Schedule by the Constitution (21st) Amendment Bill on 10 April 1967?
Topic: Constitutional Amendments
(A) Assamese
(B) Sindhi
(C) Gujarathi
(D) Konkani
Correct Answer: (B) Sindhi
Explanation: Sindhi was added to the Eighth Schedule by the 21st Amendment Act, 1967.
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Q40. Impeachment of the President of India can be initiated
Topic: Union Executive (President & PM)
(A) Only in the Lok Sabha
(B) Only in the Rajya Sabha
(C) In either House of Parliament
(D) In the Supreme Court
Correct Answer: (C) In either House of Parliament
Explanation: Under Article 61, impeachment proceedings can be initiated in either House of Parliament.
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Q41. Which Act granted Statehood to Arunachal Pradesh?
Topic: States & Union Territories
(A) Constitution Act, 1981
(B) Constitution Act, 1987
(C) Government of India Act, 1981
(D) Government of India Act, 1987
Correct Answer: (B) Constitution Act, 1987
Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh became a full-fledged State in 1987 under the relevant Statehood Act of that year.
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